Saturday, May 30, 2009

If Allah wants to do good to somebody, He afflicts him with trials - and the changing of the Hadiths

Volume 7, Book 70, Number 548:

Narrated Abu Huraira:Allah's Apostle said, "If Allah wants to do good to somebody, He afflicts him with trials."

1) Why would Allah want to do good to somebody by afflicting them with trials?
a) I have already discussed this hadith earlier -

However, what is interesting are some recent translations:

Some Arabic translations state the believer is (Musaab), meaning being tested with affliction.The current revised version reads as follows: The believer is (Musaan), meaning being protected and guarded.

This new version is clearly bastardized, as the next hadith by number clearly states:

Volume 7, Book 70, Number 549: Narrated Aisha: I never saw anybody suffering so much from sickness as Allah's Apostle As such, it is plain that Mohammad was suffering, and in his way, wanted to show his followers that Allah shows his followers mercy by afflicting them with disease.

This is totally contrary to the new translation "Musan" which states, as discussed above, "being protected and guarded.'

The questions that need to be asked with the new translations are:

1) Are Muslims embarrassed by the hadiths, and the portrayal of Mohammad (PBUH)?

2) Why are some Muslims changing the meanings of the hadiths?
a) Can a person truly believe in their faith if they have to change the very doctrine they believe in?
b) Does this mean that Turks are not real Muslims any more if they change the very hadith?

3) There is also the situation of the Quran-only Muslims -
a) How can Quran only Muslims be Muslims if they do not follow Mohammad's (PBUH) Sunnah?

4) The Quran commands Muslims to obey the words of the Holy Prophet Mohammad (PBUH)

Qur'an 4:12 "Those who obey Allah and His Messenger will be admitted to Gardens to abide therein and that will be the supreme achievement. But those who disobey Allah and His Messenger and transgress His limits will be admitted to a Fire, to abide therein: And they shall have a humiliating punishment."

a) How can a Quran-only Muslim obey Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) or Hadith-changing Muslim believe in Mohammad when they ignore the very sayings of Mohammad (PBUH) and his Sunnah?
b) Does this mean that Muslims are ensuring that their fate is destined to the hell fire as only 70,000 Muslims will get to heaven, and the rest will meet the hell fire, like every other infidel?

Friday, May 29, 2009

Mohammad encourages men to ejaculate as quickly as possible


"A Jewish rabbi, Abdulla bin Salam approached the Messenger, 'I am going to ask you three things which nobody knows except a prophet: What is the first portent of the Hour? What will be the first meal taken in Paradise? Why does a child resemble its father, and why does it resemble its mother.' Allah's Apostle said, 'Gabriel has just now told me of the answers.' 'Gabriel, from among all the angels, is the enemy of the Jews.' 'The first portent of the Hour will be a fire that will bring the people from east to west. The first meal of Paradise will be caudate lobe of fish-liver. As for the resemblance of a child to its parents: If a man has sexual intercourse with his wife and gets discharge first, the child will resemble him, and if the woman gets discharge first, the child will resemble her.' On that the rabbi said, 'I testify you are the Apostle of Allah, and that Jews are liars.'"

Mohammad (Peace be upon him) came up with reasons for Muslim men to ejaculate as quick as possible - in order for their offspring to look like the father rather than the mother

1) How did Allah's Apostle (PBUH) discover this great scientific miracle?

2) If Allah's Apostle (PBUH) is wrong, does this mean that he is not really the Apostle of Allah?
a) In order to prove the veracity of Allah's Apostle (PBUH), why dont more Muslim scientists try to prove that children look like the parent who ejaculates first?
b) After all, Muslim scientists have been able to catch Jinn:
c) And have also proven that snakes with mutilated tails cause abortion or blindness if you look at them:
d) If Muslim scientists don't try to prove Mohammad (PBUH) right, does this mean that they are scared that disproving him is proof that Allah's Apostle is a liar?
i) Afterall, even Umar (the second Caliph) used to call Mohammad a liar:

Ishaq:567 "When the spies had learned Malik's plans they returned and informed the Prophet. Muhammad in turn informed Umar, who called the Prophet a liar." Horrified, the Islamic spy said: "Umar, you may accuse me of lying, but you have denied the truth for a long time."

ii) And even Hamza (Mohammad's most feared fighter) would make fun of Mohammad (PBUH) by asking him and Ali; "are you anything but the slaves of my father?"

3) Did Mohammad (PBUH) test his answer out with his numerous wives?
a) The Holy Prophet Mohammad used to have 13 wives,, but he only conceived with his first wife Khadija (who was rich and funded Mohammad's (PBUH) religious ministry, and whence that was the only time that Mohammad (PBUH) was monogomous)
b) How did Mohammad (PBUH) know when none of his other wives besides Khadija bore him any children?
i) Did he ejaculate his semen on his cloaks?
ii) Or was Mohammad impotent?;

4) Are Muslims ignorant of Mohammad (PBUH) that they do not know what he says

5) Why did Bukhari include this verse in the hadiths? Is it to show that Mohammad (PBUH) did not in fact have scientific proof for as the basis of being a Prophet, and was thus a liar?
a) Why did the original Muslims recite this verse?
b) Is it because they knew that Mohammad (PBUH) may have been full of nonsense?
i) The best example of Mohammad's (PBUH) nonsense can be the rules pertaining to the Mohallel